Week 7: Chapter 7 — The Bible and Slavery: How We Read the Hard Passages

1.Childers acknowledges that the Bible does not explicitly call for the abolition of Greco-Roman slavery in the way modern readers might expect. Why does she argue this does not mean the Bible endorses slavery? What distinction does she draw between description and prescription, and between the Bible's specific commands and its underlying principles?

2.She explains that the slavery of the ancient Greco-Roman world was different in significant ways from the race-based chattel slavery of American history. Why does this distinction matter for how we read the New Testament's household codes? Does acknowledging the difference feel like excuse-making to you, or like responsible historical reading?

3.Childers argues that the seeds of abolition are embedded in Scripture itself — in the image of God (imago Dei) applied to all human beings, in Paul's declaration that in Christ there is 'neither slave nor free,' and in the letter to Philemon, which is effectively an appeal to free a slave. How strong do you find this argument? What does it suggest about the relationship between the Bible's explicit commands and its deeper moral logic?